KMUCAT Paper 3 2025
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- The Explanations of all the MCQ’s will be provided to you with Your Right & Wrong Answers on completion of this Test.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsIf 5 cats catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are needed to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?
Correct
Explanation: A
Incorrect
Explanation: A

-
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language: TRUTH = WUXWK, then LIE = ?
Correct
Explanation: B
The code shifts each letter +3 positions (Caesar cipher).
T → W, R → U, U → X, T → W, H → K (all +3).
Apply to LIE: L → O, I → L, E → H → OLH.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The code shifts each letter +3 positions (Caesar cipher).
T → W, R → U, U → X, T → W, H → K (all +3).
Apply to LIE: L → O, I → L, E → H → OLH. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsWhich option completes the analogy?
Book : Knowledge : Weapon : ?Correct
Explanation: D
A book is a tool used to gain knowledge; similarly, a weapon is a tool used for defense. (War and soldier are users/contexts, and “power” is vague—not the primary function.)Incorrect
Explanation: D
A book is a tool used to gain knowledge; similarly, a weapon is a tool used for defense. (War and soldier are users/contexts, and “power” is vague—not the primary function.) -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsWhat is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought?
Correct
Explanation: B
A clause has a subject + verb. If it doesn’t express a complete thought, it’s a dependent (subordinate) clause.
• A phrase lacks a subject–verb pair.
• A sentence is a complete thought.
• A paragraph contains sentences.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A clause has a subject + verb. If it doesn’t express a complete thought, it’s a dependent (subordinate) clause.
• A phrase lacks a subject–verb pair.
• A sentence is a complete thought.
• A paragraph contains sentences. -
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsWhat is the term for a sentence that gives a command or makes a request?
Correct
Explanation: D
An imperative sentence gives a command, request, or instruction (e.g., “Close the door,” “Please sit down”).
• Statement = declarative, Question = interrogative, Exclamation = exclamatory.Incorrect
Explanation: D
An imperative sentence gives a command, request, or instruction (e.g., “Close the door,” “Please sit down”).
• Statement = declarative, Question = interrogative, Exclamation = exclamatory. -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsThe species which are becoming near to extinction are called:
Correct
Explanation: B
In standard biology texts, endangered species are those at serious risk of extinction (numbers critically low, “near to extinction”).
• Threatened = likely to become endangered soon.
• Vanished = extinct.
• Wild = simply living in nature.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In standard biology texts, endangered species are those at serious risk of extinction (numbers critically low, “near to extinction”).
• Threatened = likely to become endangered soon.
• Vanished = extinct.
• Wild = simply living in nature. -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is a figure of speech in which two unlike things are compared using “like” or “as”?
Correct
Explanation: B
A simile compares two unlike things using “like” or “as” (e.g., “as brave as a lion,” “floats like a feather”).
• Metaphor: direct comparison without like/as.
• Personification: human traits to nonhuman things.
• Hyperbole: deliberate exaggeration.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A simile compares two unlike things using “like” or “as” (e.g., “as brave as a lion,” “floats like a feather”).
• Metaphor: direct comparison without like/as.
• Personification: human traits to nonhuman things.
• Hyperbole: deliberate exaggeration. -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsWhat is the term for a sentence that expresses strong emotion or surprise?
Correct
Explanation: C
An exclamatory sentence expresses strong emotion or surprise and typically ends with an exclamation mark (e.g., “What a beautiful day!”).Incorrect
Explanation: C
An exclamatory sentence expresses strong emotion or surprise and typically ends with an exclamation mark (e.g., “What a beautiful day!”). -
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsA train runs at 90 km/h. It crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?
Correct
Explanation: B
Speed v = 90 km/h = 90×1000/3600 = 25 m/s.
Length = distance covered in 20 s = v × t = 25 × 20 = 500 m.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Speed v = 90 km/h = 90×1000/3600 = 25 m/s.
Length = distance covered in 20 s = v × t = 25 × 20 = 500 m. -
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsThe excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called ________________.
Correct
Explanation: C
A metastable state is an excited state with an unusually long lifetime because the transition back to lower energy is quantum-mechanically forbidden or weak, so decay is slow. This is the state exploited in lasers and seen in phosphorescence.Incorrect
Explanation: C
A metastable state is an excited state with an unusually long lifetime because the transition back to lower energy is quantum-mechanically forbidden or weak, so decay is slow. This is the state exploited in lasers and seen in phosphorescence. -
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsWhich classification system is based on genome type and replication strategy?
Correct
Explanation: B
The Baltimore classification groups viruses by type of nucleic acid (DNA/RNA, ss/ds, +/− sense) and their pathway to mRNA (replication strategy).
• ICTV uses morphology, genetics, and taxonomy ranks.
• Linnaean is general biological taxonomy (kingdom → species).
• Gram stain classifies bacteria, not viruses.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The Baltimore classification groups viruses by type of nucleic acid (DNA/RNA, ss/ds, +/− sense) and their pathway to mRNA (replication strategy).
• ICTV uses morphology, genetics, and taxonomy ranks.
• Linnaean is general biological taxonomy (kingdom → species).
• Gram stain classifies bacteria, not viruses. -
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsHow does anaerobic respiration in muscle cells cause a reduction in blood pH?
Correct
Explanation: C
During intense exercise with insufficient O2, muscle cells switch to anaerobic glycolysis: pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid (lactate + H+) to regenerate NAD+. The H+ released with lactate enters the bloodstream, where it’s only partly buffered (mainly by the bicarbonate system), so blood pH falls (lactic acidosis).
Why not the others?
A. CO2: Most CO2 comes from aerobic metabolism (TCA cycle), not anaerobic glycolysis.
B. Ethanol: Humans don’t produce ethanol in muscle metabolism.
D. Oxygen removal: Low O2 triggers anaerobic metabolism but doesn’t itself acidify blood; the H+ from lactic acid does.Incorrect
Explanation: C
During intense exercise with insufficient O2, muscle cells switch to anaerobic glycolysis: pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid (lactate + H+) to regenerate NAD+. The H+ released with lactate enters the bloodstream, where it’s only partly buffered (mainly by the bicarbonate system), so blood pH falls (lactic acidosis).
Why not the others?
A. CO2: Most CO2 comes from aerobic metabolism (TCA cycle), not anaerobic glycolysis.
B. Ethanol: Humans don’t produce ethanol in muscle metabolism.
D. Oxygen removal: Low O2 triggers anaerobic metabolism but doesn’t itself acidify blood; the H+ from lactic acid does. -
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsWhat are the indirect effects of a rise in heart rate for an athlete during a 200-meter race?
Correct
Explanation: B
• A rise in heart rate → higher cardiac output → more O2 delivery to working muscles and faster removal of CO2, heat, and lactate.
• With better oxygen supply, muscles can meet more of their ATP demand aerobically, so their reliance on anaerobic glycolysis (which produces lactic acid) is reduced.
Why not the others
A. Increase digestion of carbohydrates: During intense exercise, sympathetic activity suppresses digestion.
B. Increase ventilation: Ventilation rises mainly due to respiratory center control (chemoreceptors, muscle/joint feedback). It’s not an indirect effect of heart rate itself.
D. Reduce need for sweating: Heat production increases in a race; sweating is more needed, not less.
Note: A 200 m sprint is still largely anaerobic, but the rise in heart rate lessens (doesn’t eliminate) the amount of anaerobic contribution required compared with a lower cardiac output.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• A rise in heart rate → higher cardiac output → more O2 delivery to working muscles and faster removal of CO2, heat, and lactate.
• With better oxygen supply, muscles can meet more of their ATP demand aerobically, so their reliance on anaerobic glycolysis (which produces lactic acid) is reduced.
Why not the others
A. Increase digestion of carbohydrates: During intense exercise, sympathetic activity suppresses digestion.
B. Increase ventilation: Ventilation rises mainly due to respiratory center control (chemoreceptors, muscle/joint feedback). It’s not an indirect effect of heart rate itself.
D. Reduce need for sweating: Heat production increases in a race; sweating is more needed, not less.
Note: A 200 m sprint is still largely anaerobic, but the rise in heart rate lessens (doesn’t eliminate) the amount of anaerobic contribution required compared with a lower cardiac output. -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsThe main role of centrioles in animal cells is ______________.
Correct
Explanation: C
Centrioles (within the centrosome) organize microtubules and help form the mitotic spindle that separates chromosomes during cell division.
• Photosynthesis → chloroplasts (plants/algae).
• Detoxification → smooth ER/peroxisomes.
• Protein modification → ER/Golgi apparatusIncorrect
Explanation: C
Centrioles (within the centrosome) organize microtubules and help form the mitotic spindle that separates chromosomes during cell division.
• Photosynthesis → chloroplasts (plants/algae).
• Detoxification → smooth ER/peroxisomes.
• Protein modification → ER/Golgi apparatus -
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsBlood from the ileum is carried in the hepatic portal vein to the liver. Why is this an advantage to the body?
Correct
Explanation: D
Blood from the ileum passes first to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. This “first-pass” route lets the liver detoxify harmful substances (e.g., bacterial toxins, drugs) before they enter the general circulation, protecting tissues.
Why not the others?
A. The liver does deaminate excess amino acids and convert ammonia to urea, but that’s a specific case; the broader protective advantage is detoxification of many absorbed substances.
B. The liver converts excess glucose → glycogen, but glucose is not normally “excreted”; wording is off.
C. Long-chain fat products mostly enter lymph as chylomicrons and bypass the liver initially, so this is incorrect.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Blood from the ileum passes first to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. This “first-pass” route lets the liver detoxify harmful substances (e.g., bacterial toxins, drugs) before they enter the general circulation, protecting tissues.
Why not the others?
A. The liver does deaminate excess amino acids and convert ammonia to urea, but that’s a specific case; the broader protective advantage is detoxification of many absorbed substances.
B. The liver converts excess glucose → glycogen, but glucose is not normally “excreted”; wording is off.
C. Long-chain fat products mostly enter lymph as chylomicrons and bypass the liver initially, so this is incorrect. -
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsAfter eating, the pH of the mouth decreases. Which statement explains its decrease?
Correct
Explanation: A
After eating (especially sugars), oral bacteria like Streptococcus mutans ferment the sugars to organic acids (e.g., lactic acid). These acids lower the mouth’s pH. Saliva generally buffers/neutralizes acids (it doesn’t secrete acid), and neurons don’t release acids. Lower pH (≈ below 5.5) promotes enamel demineralization.Incorrect
Explanation: A
After eating (especially sugars), oral bacteria like Streptococcus mutans ferment the sugars to organic acids (e.g., lactic acid). These acids lower the mouth’s pH. Saliva generally buffers/neutralizes acids (it doesn’t secrete acid), and neurons don’t release acids. Lower pH (≈ below 5.5) promotes enamel demineralization. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsWhich statement about the ulna is correct?
Correct
Explanation: C
The ulna has the olecranon process (the bony tip of the elbow), which is the insertion of the triceps brachii—the main extensor of the forearm.
A: The elbow hinge is mainly humerus–ulna (trochlea ↔ trochlear notch); the radius–ulna articulation at the proximal end is a pivot joint (not the elbow hinge).
B: The ulna does not form a joint at the shoulder; that’s the humerus–scapula (ball-and-socket).
D: The ulna doesn’t link the radius to the scapula; the radius and ulna form the forearm, while the scapula is part of the shoulder girdle.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The ulna has the olecranon process (the bony tip of the elbow), which is the insertion of the triceps brachii—the main extensor of the forearm.
A: The elbow hinge is mainly humerus–ulna (trochlea ↔ trochlear notch); the radius–ulna articulation at the proximal end is a pivot joint (not the elbow hinge).
B: The ulna does not form a joint at the shoulder; that’s the humerus–scapula (ball-and-socket).
D: The ulna doesn’t link the radius to the scapula; the radius and ulna form the forearm, while the scapula is part of the shoulder girdle. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsTwo brothers had different blood groups. One was blood group A and the other was blood group B. What can be concluded about their parents’ blood group genotypes?
Correct
Explanation: C
ABO blood groups are controlled by three alleles: IA, IB, i.
• Phenotype A = IAIA or IAi
• Phenotype B = IBIB or IBi
To have one child with A and another with B in the same family, the parents must be able to pass on IA to one child and IB to another. This is possible only if at least one parent carries two different alleles (is heterozygous).
Examples that work:
• AB × O (IAIB × ii) → children: IAi (A) or IBi (B)
• A (IAi) × B (IBi) → children can be A, B, AB, or O
Counterexamples:
• Both parents homozygous (e.g., IAIA × IBIB, or IAIA × ii, or IBIB × ii) cannot produce both A and B children.
So, the only conclusion that must be true is: at least one parent is heterozygous.Incorrect
Explanation: C
ABO blood groups are controlled by three alleles: IA, IB, i.
• Phenotype A = IAIA or IAi
• Phenotype B = IBIB or IBi
To have one child with A and another with B in the same family, the parents must be able to pass on IA to one child and IB to another. This is possible only if at least one parent carries two different alleles (is heterozygous).
Examples that work:
• AB × O (IAIB × ii) → children: IAi (A) or IBi (B)
• A (IAi) × B (IBi) → children can be A, B, AB, or O
Counterexamples:
• Both parents homozygous (e.g., IAIA × IBIB, or IAIA × ii, or IBIB × ii) cannot produce both A and B children.
So, the only conclusion that must be true is: at least one parent is heterozygous. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsDamage to cerebellum as a result of head injury will lead to:
Correct
Explanation: A
The cerebellum coordinates posture, balance, and the timing/precision of movements. Damage causes ataxia, tremors, and unsteady gait (poor coordination).
B. (temperature control): hypothalamus.
C. (heartbeat): medulla/ANS centers.
D. (visual recognition): occipital/association cortex.Incorrect
Explanation: A
The cerebellum coordinates posture, balance, and the timing/precision of movements. Damage causes ataxia, tremors, and unsteady gait (poor coordination).
B. (temperature control): hypothalamus.
C. (heartbeat): medulla/ANS centers.
D. (visual recognition): occipital/association cortex. -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsWhich one is drinking process of the cell:
Correct
Explanation: C
Pinocytosis is “cell drinking,” where the cell membrane invaginates to take in extracellular fluid and dissolved solutes in small vesicles.
• Phagocytosis = “cell eating” (solid particles).
• Exocytosis = vesicles fuse outwards to export substances.
• Chloroplast = organelle for photosynthesis (not a transport process).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Pinocytosis is “cell drinking,” where the cell membrane invaginates to take in extracellular fluid and dissolved solutes in small vesicles.
• Phagocytosis = “cell eating” (solid particles).
• Exocytosis = vesicles fuse outwards to export substances.
• Chloroplast = organelle for photosynthesis (not a transport process). -
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsThe synthesis of glycogen is known as:
Correct
Explanation: D
• Glycogenesis = synthesis of glycogen from glucose (storage form in liver & muscle).
• Gluconeogenesis (A) = making glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
• Glycogenolysis (B) = breakdown of glycogen to glucose.
• Glycolysis (C) = breakdown of glucose → pyruvate for ATP.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Glycogenesis = synthesis of glycogen from glucose (storage form in liver & muscle).
• Gluconeogenesis (A) = making glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
• Glycogenolysis (B) = breakdown of glycogen to glucose.
• Glycolysis (C) = breakdown of glucose → pyruvate for ATP. -
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsAll of these are disaccharides except for:
Correct
Explanation: D
• Maltose, lactose, sucrose are all disaccharides (two monosaccharides linked by a glycosidic bond).
• Fructose is a monosaccharide (a ketohexose), not a disaccharide.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Maltose, lactose, sucrose are all disaccharides (two monosaccharides linked by a glycosidic bond).
• Fructose is a monosaccharide (a ketohexose), not a disaccharide. -
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsThe covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called:
Correct
Explanation: A
Glucose and fructose join via an O-glycosidic linkage to form sucrose—specifically an α(1 → 2) glycosidic bond between C1 of α-D-glucose and C2 of β-D-fructofuranose. Peptide and ester bonds are for proteins and lipids, respectively; hydrogen bonds are noncovalent.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Glucose and fructose join via an O-glycosidic linkage to form sucrose—specifically an α(1 → 2) glycosidic bond between C1 of α-D-glucose and C2 of β-D-fructofuranose. Peptide and ester bonds are for proteins and lipids, respectively; hydrogen bonds are noncovalent. -
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsAn enzyme without its cofactor is called:
Correct
Explanation: D
• Apoenzyme = the protein part alone, lacking its required cofactor → inactive.
• Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor (active form).
• Coenzyme = organic cofactor (e.g., NAD+).
• Prosthetic group = tightly bound cofactor.
• Active site = region where substrate binds (not the whole enzyme).Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Apoenzyme = the protein part alone, lacking its required cofactor → inactive.
• Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor (active form).
• Coenzyme = organic cofactor (e.g., NAD+).
• Prosthetic group = tightly bound cofactor.
• Active site = region where substrate binds (not the whole enzyme). -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsCo-enzymes are derived from:
Correct
Explanation: A
Coenzymes are organic cofactors, and most are derived from vitamins (especially B-complex)—e.g., NAD+ from niacin (B3), FAD from riboflavin (B2), CoA from pantothenic acid (B5), TPP from thiamine (B1), PLP from pyridoxine (B6), biotin, cobalamin (B12).
Minerals (metal ions like Zn2+, Mg2+) are inorganic cofactors, not coenzymes. Hormones are signaling molecules, not cofactors.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Coenzymes are organic cofactors, and most are derived from vitamins (especially B-complex)—e.g., NAD+ from niacin (B3), FAD from riboflavin (B2), CoA from pantothenic acid (B5), TPP from thiamine (B1), PLP from pyridoxine (B6), biotin, cobalamin (B12).
Minerals (metal ions like Zn2+, Mg2+) are inorganic cofactors, not coenzymes. Hormones are signaling molecules, not cofactors. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsmRNA’s primary function is to ________________.
Correct
Explanation: C
• mRNA carries the codon sequence copied from DNA to the ribosome, where it’s translated into a polypeptide.
• tRNA (not mRNA) brings amino acids to ribosomes (A).
• DNA replication (B) is done by DNA polymerases, not mRNA.
• rRNA (not mRNA) forms core ribosomal structure (D).Incorrect
Explanation: C
• mRNA carries the codon sequence copied from DNA to the ribosome, where it’s translated into a polypeptide.
• tRNA (not mRNA) brings amino acids to ribosomes (A).
• DNA replication (B) is done by DNA polymerases, not mRNA.
• rRNA (not mRNA) forms core ribosomal structure (D). -
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsThe first stable product of dark reaction is _____________ carbon molecule.
Correct
Explanation: C
The dark reaction (Calvin–Benson cycle) fixes CO2 via RuBP and the first stable product formed is 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA), a 3-carbon compound.
(Note: In C4 plants, the first product of the Hatch–Slack pathway is a 4-carbon oxaloacetate, but the Calvin cycle itself still yields 3-PGA.).Incorrect
Explanation: C
The dark reaction (Calvin–Benson cycle) fixes CO2 via RuBP and the first stable product formed is 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA), a 3-carbon compound.
(Note: In C4 plants, the first product of the Hatch–Slack pathway is a 4-carbon oxaloacetate, but the Calvin cycle itself still yields 3-PGA.). -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsTobacco mosaic virus is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) has a rigid, rod-like helical capsid made of repeating protein subunits wrapped around its RNA.
A Spherical → many animal viruses (e.g., orthomyxoviruses)
B Tadpole-like → typical of some bacteriophages (head + tail)
D Polyhedral → e.g., adenoviruses (icosahedral)Incorrect
Explanation: C
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) has a rigid, rod-like helical capsid made of repeating protein subunits wrapped around its RNA.
A Spherical → many animal viruses (e.g., orthomyxoviruses)
B Tadpole-like → typical of some bacteriophages (head + tail)
D Polyhedral → e.g., adenoviruses (icosahedral) -
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are viruses except:
Correct
Explanation: D
• SARS — caused by a coronavirus (virus).
• FIV — Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (retrovirus).
• SV — Simian virus (e.g., SV40), a virus.
• Mycoplasma — bacteria (wall-less prokaryotes), not viruses.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• SARS — caused by a coronavirus (virus).
• FIV — Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (retrovirus).
• SV — Simian virus (e.g., SV40), a virus.
• Mycoplasma — bacteria (wall-less prokaryotes), not viruses. -
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following hepatitis virus is transmitted by oro-fecal route?
Correct
Explanation: A
• Hepatitis A virus (HAV) spreads primarily by the fecal–oral route: ingestion of food or water contaminated with infected feces (e.g., poor hand hygiene, contaminated shellfish, unsafe water). Outbreaks often occur where sanitation is inadequate.
• Hepatitis B (HBV): transmitted via blood and body fluids (unprotected sex, shared needles, perinatal from mother to baby, needlestick injuries). Not fecal–oral.
• Hepatitis C (HCV): mainly blood-borne (shared needles, transfusions before screening, needlestick); sexual/perinatal transmission is less common than HBV.
• (For completeness: Hepatitis E (HEV)—not listed here—also spreads fecal–orally, often via contaminated water, especially in areas with poor sanitation.)
Quick contrasts
• Incubation: HAV ~2–6 weeks; HBV ~6 weeks–6 months; HCV ~6–10 weeks.
• Chronicity: HAV does not become chronic; HBV and HCV can become chronic (especially HCV).
• Vaccines: Vaccines available for HAV and HBV; no widely used vaccine for HCV.
So, the only option transmitted by the oro-fecal (fecal–oral) route is Hepatitis A.Incorrect
Explanation: A
• Hepatitis A virus (HAV) spreads primarily by the fecal–oral route: ingestion of food or water contaminated with infected feces (e.g., poor hand hygiene, contaminated shellfish, unsafe water). Outbreaks often occur where sanitation is inadequate.
• Hepatitis B (HBV): transmitted via blood and body fluids (unprotected sex, shared needles, perinatal from mother to baby, needlestick injuries). Not fecal–oral.
• Hepatitis C (HCV): mainly blood-borne (shared needles, transfusions before screening, needlestick); sexual/perinatal transmission is less common than HBV.
• (For completeness: Hepatitis E (HEV)—not listed here—also spreads fecal–orally, often via contaminated water, especially in areas with poor sanitation.)
Quick contrasts
• Incubation: HAV ~2–6 weeks; HBV ~6 weeks–6 months; HCV ~6–10 weeks.
• Chronicity: HAV does not become chronic; HBV and HCV can become chronic (especially HCV).
• Vaccines: Vaccines available for HAV and HBV; no widely used vaccine for HCV.
So, the only option transmitted by the oro-fecal (fecal–oral) route is Hepatitis A. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following causes tuberculosis and leprosy?
Correct
Explanation: D
Tuberculosis & leprosy are caused by Mycobacterium (acid-fast actinomycetes).
Tuberculosisis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosisand leprosy by Mycobacterium leprae.
• Streptomyces (A) are soil bacteria best known for producing antibiotics, not TB or leprosy.
• Actinomycetes (B) is a broad group (e.g., Actinomyces, Streptomyces); they don’t include the disease agents above in standard school classification.
• Mycoplasma (C) are wall-less bacteria causing atypical pneumonia, not TB or leprosy.
Since Mycobacterium is not an option, the correct choice is D. None of these.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Tuberculosis & leprosy are caused by Mycobacterium (acid-fast actinomycetes).
Tuberculosisis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosisand leprosy by Mycobacterium leprae.
• Streptomyces (A) are soil bacteria best known for producing antibiotics, not TB or leprosy.
• Actinomycetes (B) is a broad group (e.g., Actinomyces, Streptomyces); they don’t include the disease agents above in standard school classification.
• Mycoplasma (C) are wall-less bacteria causing atypical pneumonia, not TB or leprosy.
Since Mycobacterium is not an option, the correct choice is D. None of these. -
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsAll of the above are bacillus bacteria except:
Correct
Explanation: D
• Pseudomonas → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Clostridium → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Salmonella → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Streptococcus → spherical bacteria in chains (cocci), not bacilli.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Pseudomonas → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Clostridium → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Salmonella → rod-shaped (bacillus)
• Streptococcus → spherical bacteria in chains (cocci), not bacilli. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsChemicals in tobacco smoke lead to the breakdown of the elastic tissue in the walls of the alveoli. What is the name of this condition?
Correct
Explanation: D
Tobacco smoke triggers inflammation and enzyme activity that destroys elastic fibres in alveolar walls. Loss of elasticity causes air trapping, reduced surface area for gas exchange, and breathlessness—hallmarks of emphysema (a form of COPD). Bronchitis = airway inflammation/mucus; pneumonia = alveoli filled with fluid; lung cancer = uncontrolled cell growth.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Tobacco smoke triggers inflammation and enzyme activity that destroys elastic fibres in alveolar walls. Loss of elasticity causes air trapping, reduced surface area for gas exchange, and breathlessness—hallmarks of emphysema (a form of COPD). Bronchitis = airway inflammation/mucus; pneumonia = alveoli filled with fluid; lung cancer = uncontrolled cell growth. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsRespiratory system gives the basic ability to:
Correct
Explanation: C
The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange—bringing O2 into the body and removing CO2. Smell involves olfactory receptors (sense function, not the core “basic ability”), electrolytes are transported via blood/kidneys, and creatinine is excreted by the kidneys, not the lungs.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange—bringing O2 into the body and removing CO2. Smell involves olfactory receptors (sense function, not the core “basic ability”), electrolytes are transported via blood/kidneys, and creatinine is excreted by the kidneys, not the lungs. -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsRespiratory surface must be permeable, thin having large surface area and good supply of _________________.
Correct
Explanation: C
An efficient respiratory surface is thin, moist, large in area, and richly supplied with blood to maintain steep diffusion gradients—blood delivers CO2 to the surface and carries away O2. Lymph isn’t used for gas transport, and “supply of gases” is achieved by ventilation, not by a vascular supply.Incorrect
Explanation: C
An efficient respiratory surface is thin, moist, large in area, and richly supplied with blood to maintain steep diffusion gradients—blood delivers CO2 to the surface and carries away O2. Lymph isn’t used for gas transport, and “supply of gases” is achieved by ventilation, not by a vascular supply. -
Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsThe bronchioles are located at the end of the bronchi and terminate in the:
Correct
Explanation: D
Airway pathway: trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → terminal/respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs → alveoli.
Bronchioles ultimately open into alveolar sacs, which are clusters composed of many alveoli (the actual gas-exchange units). Hence both alveoli and alveolar sacs are correct endpoints in this context.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Airway pathway: trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → terminal/respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs → alveoli.
Bronchioles ultimately open into alveolar sacs, which are clusters composed of many alveoli (the actual gas-exchange units). Hence both alveoli and alveolar sacs are correct endpoints in this context. -
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsA wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of neuron from one end to other is:
Correct
Explanation: C
A nerve impulse (action potential) is the wave of electrochemical change—rapid depolarization and repolarization—propagating along a neuron’s membrane.
• Reflex arc: the pathway (receptor → sensory → CNS → motor → effector).
• Reflex action: the automatic response produced via the reflex arc.
• Influx: inward flow (e.g., Na+ influx), not the whole traveling signal.Incorrect
Explanation: C
A nerve impulse (action potential) is the wave of electrochemical change—rapid depolarization and repolarization—propagating along a neuron’s membrane.
• Reflex arc: the pathway (receptor → sensory → CNS → motor → effector).
• Reflex action: the automatic response produced via the reflex arc.
• Influx: inward flow (e.g., Na+ influx), not the whole traveling signal. -
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsThe type of nerve impulse in non-myelinated neuron will be:
Correct
Explanation: A
In non-myelinated neurons, the action potential is regenerated at every point along the axon membrane, producing continuous conduction.
• Saltatory conduction happens only in myelinated axons, jumping node-to-node.
• Calling it simply “electrical” is incomplete (it’s electrochemical).
• So “All of them” is incorrect.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In non-myelinated neurons, the action potential is regenerated at every point along the axon membrane, producing continuous conduction.
• Saltatory conduction happens only in myelinated axons, jumping node-to-node.
• Calling it simply “electrical” is incomplete (it’s electrochemical).
• So “All of them” is incorrect. -
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsTestosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:
Correct
Explanation: A
Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are all steroid hormones, synthesized from cholesterol. They’re lipid-soluble, act via intracellular receptors, and modulate gene transcription. (Amino acid/protein/polypeptide options refer to peptide or amine hormones like insulin, ADH, or adrenaline.)Incorrect
Explanation: A
Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are all steroid hormones, synthesized from cholesterol. They’re lipid-soluble, act via intracellular receptors, and modulate gene transcription. (Amino acid/protein/polypeptide options refer to peptide or amine hormones like insulin, ADH, or adrenaline.) -
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsInsulin is secreted by:
Correct
Explanation: B
In the pancreas, the islets of Langerhans contain:
• β (beta) cells → insulin (lowers blood glucose)
• α (alpha) cells → glucagon
• δ (delta) cells → somatostatin
• Acinar cells (exocrine pancreas) → digestive enzymes, not hormones.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In the pancreas, the islets of Langerhans contain:
• β (beta) cells → insulin (lowers blood glucose)
• α (alpha) cells → glucagon
• δ (delta) cells → somatostatin
• Acinar cells (exocrine pancreas) → digestive enzymes, not hormones. -
Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsInsulin is manufactured commercially using genetic engineering. Which of the following organisms is used to produce large quantities of insulin this way?
Correct
Explanation: B
Modern insulin is produced by recombinant DNA: the human insulin gene is inserted into a plasmid and introduced into bacteria (usually E. coli), which then synthesize human insulin in large fermenters.
Note: Some products also use yeast—fungi—but the classic and most common answer is bacteria.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Modern insulin is produced by recombinant DNA: the human insulin gene is inserted into a plasmid and introduced into bacteria (usually E. coli), which then synthesize human insulin in large fermenters.
Note: Some products also use yeast—fungi—but the classic and most common answer is bacteria. -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsWhich structures are all involved in controlling the human body temperature?
Correct
Explanation: B
• Hypothalamus (preoptic area) = the body’s thermostat. It receives input from skin (peripheral) and core (central) thermoreceptors and compares to the set-point (~37°C). It then triggers appropriate responses.
• Blood vessels near the skin = major effectors for heat exchange.
• Vasodilation → increases blood flow to skin → more heat lost by radiation, convection, and conduction.
• Vasoconstriction → reduces skin blood flow → conserves heat.
• Skeletal muscles = effectors for shivering thermogenesis. Rapid, involuntary contractions generate heat when core temperature falls.
Note: Sweat glands are also important effectors (evaporative cooling), but the option set that includes them (A) replaces the hypothalamus with the cerebellum, which makes it incorrect.
Why the other options are wrong
A. … cerebellum …
The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance; it does not regulate temperature. (Sweat glands are correct, but the cerebellum makes the whole set wrong.)
C. Kidneys … cerebellum …
Kidneys regulate fluid/electrolyte balance and acid–base status, not moment-to-moment thermoregulation; cerebellum also not involved.
D. Kidneys …
Again, kidneys aren’t part of the immediate thermoregulatory control loop, so the set isn’t “all involved.”
Summary: Thermoregulation = hypothalamic control (integrator) + skin blood vessels and skeletal muscles (effectors), with sweat glands as additional effectors for heat loss. Hence B.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• Hypothalamus (preoptic area) = the body’s thermostat. It receives input from skin (peripheral) and core (central) thermoreceptors and compares to the set-point (~37°C). It then triggers appropriate responses.
• Blood vessels near the skin = major effectors for heat exchange.
• Vasodilation → increases blood flow to skin → more heat lost by radiation, convection, and conduction.
• Vasoconstriction → reduces skin blood flow → conserves heat.
• Skeletal muscles = effectors for shivering thermogenesis. Rapid, involuntary contractions generate heat when core temperature falls.
Note: Sweat glands are also important effectors (evaporative cooling), but the option set that includes them (A) replaces the hypothalamus with the cerebellum, which makes it incorrect.
Why the other options are wrong
A. … cerebellum …
The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance; it does not regulate temperature. (Sweat glands are correct, but the cerebellum makes the whole set wrong.)
C. Kidneys … cerebellum …
Kidneys regulate fluid/electrolyte balance and acid–base status, not moment-to-moment thermoregulation; cerebellum also not involved.
D. Kidneys …
Again, kidneys aren’t part of the immediate thermoregulatory control loop, so the set isn’t “all involved.”
Summary: Thermoregulation = hypothalamic control (integrator) + skin blood vessels and skeletal muscles (effectors), with sweat glands as additional effectors for heat loss. Hence B. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsWhich statement is correct for all viruses but not for all bacteria and fungi?
Correct
Explanation: C
• All viruses are obligate intracellular parasites: they must enter living host cells to replicate because they lack their own ribosomes, ATP-generating systems, and metabolic machinery.
Why the others are wrong
A. Most of the cell is cytoplasm — Viruses are acellular: no cytoplasm, just a nucleic acid core inside a protein capsid (± lipid envelope).
B. Their outer layer is cellulosic — Viral coats are protein capsids (some with a lipid envelope); cellulose is in plant cell walls, not viruses. Bacteria have peptidoglycan; fungi have chitin/glucans.
D. They have a nucleus containing DNA or RNA — Viruses have no nucleus. They possess either DNA or RNA (never both) enclosed in a capsid. Bacteria lack a true nucleus; fungi do have one, but the statement isn’t true for viruses.Incorrect
Explanation: C
• All viruses are obligate intracellular parasites: they must enter living host cells to replicate because they lack their own ribosomes, ATP-generating systems, and metabolic machinery.
Why the others are wrong
A. Most of the cell is cytoplasm — Viruses are acellular: no cytoplasm, just a nucleic acid core inside a protein capsid (± lipid envelope).
B. Their outer layer is cellulosic — Viral coats are protein capsids (some with a lipid envelope); cellulose is in plant cell walls, not viruses. Bacteria have peptidoglycan; fungi have chitin/glucans.
D. They have a nucleus containing DNA or RNA — Viruses have no nucleus. They possess either DNA or RNA (never both) enclosed in a capsid. Bacteria lack a true nucleus; fungi do have one, but the statement isn’t true for viruses. -
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsHow many molecules of carbon dioxide will be produced from the breakdown of two molecules of glucose in aerobic respiration?
Correct
Explanation: D
Per one glucose in aerobic respiration:
• Glycolysis: 0 CO2
• Link reaction (pyruvate → acetyl-CoA): 2 CO2 (1 per pyruvate × 2)
• Krebs cycle: 4 CO2 (2 per turn × 2 turns)
Total = 6 CO2 per glucose.
For two glucose molecules: 6 × 2 = 12 CO2.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Per one glucose in aerobic respiration:
• Glycolysis: 0 CO2
• Link reaction (pyruvate → acetyl-CoA): 2 CO2 (1 per pyruvate × 2)
• Krebs cycle: 4 CO2 (2 per turn × 2 turns)
Total = 6 CO2 per glucose.
For two glucose molecules: 6 × 2 = 12 CO2. -
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsWhich statement about chromosome is correct?
Correct
Explanation: B
• A chromosome is made of one very long, continuous DNA double helix plus associated proteins (histones).
• Along this DNA, discrete functional segments called genes occur in sequence. So: chromosome → long DNA → genes.
Why the others are wrong
A: Mixes up terms—genes are sections of DNA, not the other way around.
C: Says genes are divided into DNA molecules—backwards; DNA contains genes.
D: Says genes include chromosomes—again inverted; chromosomes contain genes.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• A chromosome is made of one very long, continuous DNA double helix plus associated proteins (histones).
• Along this DNA, discrete functional segments called genes occur in sequence. So: chromosome → long DNA → genes.
Why the others are wrong
A: Mixes up terms—genes are sections of DNA, not the other way around.
C: Says genes are divided into DNA molecules—backwards; DNA contains genes.
D: Says genes include chromosomes—again inverted; chromosomes contain genes. -
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsThe genotype for the height of an organism is written as Tt. What conclusion may be drawn?
Correct
Explanation: B
• Tt means the organism is heterozygous at the height gene: it carries two different alleles—T and t—on a pair of homologous chromosomes.
• In diploids, an individual has two alleles of the same gene (one from each parent). Tt shows that the gene for height has ≥2 allelic forms in the population (at least T and t), though the individual has only two.
Why the others are wrong
A. Reverses terms: alleles are forms of a gene, not genes of an allele.
C. Implies two different genes for height; here T and t are alleles of the same gene, not separate genes.
D. Says “one allele … with two forms,” which is self-contradictory; alleles are the forms of a gene.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• Tt means the organism is heterozygous at the height gene: it carries two different alleles—T and t—on a pair of homologous chromosomes.
• In diploids, an individual has two alleles of the same gene (one from each parent). Tt shows that the gene for height has ≥2 allelic forms in the population (at least T and t), though the individual has only two.
Why the others are wrong
A. Reverses terms: alleles are forms of a gene, not genes of an allele.
C. Implies two different genes for height; here T and t are alleles of the same gene, not separate genes.
D. Says “one allele … with two forms,” which is self-contradictory; alleles are the forms of a gene. -
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsIn the human circulatory system, what causes the transfer of materials from the capillaries to the tissue fluid?
Correct
Explanation: B
At the arterial end of capillaries, capillary hydrostatic pressure (blood pressure) exceeds the opposing oncotic pressure, causing bulk filtration of water and small solutes (glucose, ions, etc.) out of the capillary into the tissue fluid (interstitial fluid). Larger proteins and cells remain in the blood. At the venous end, plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure predominates and pulls fluid back into capillaries.
Why others are incorrect
A. Active transport: Not the main mechanism for bulk movement from blood to tissue fluid; endothelial active transport is limited (e.g., vesicular transport).
C. Capillarity: Refers to movement in narrow tubes by surface tension—not the driver of capillary-tissue exchange.
D. Osmosis: Primarily drives reabsorption into capillaries at the venous end due to plasma proteins, not the outward movement to form tissue fluid.Incorrect
Explanation: B
At the arterial end of capillaries, capillary hydrostatic pressure (blood pressure) exceeds the opposing oncotic pressure, causing bulk filtration of water and small solutes (glucose, ions, etc.) out of the capillary into the tissue fluid (interstitial fluid). Larger proteins and cells remain in the blood. At the venous end, plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure predominates and pulls fluid back into capillaries.
Why others are incorrect
A. Active transport: Not the main mechanism for bulk movement from blood to tissue fluid; endothelial active transport is limited (e.g., vesicular transport).
C. Capillarity: Refers to movement in narrow tubes by surface tension—not the driver of capillary-tissue exchange.
D. Osmosis: Primarily drives reabsorption into capillaries at the venous end due to plasma proteins, not the outward movement to form tissue fluid. -
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsIn the human heart, why is the wall of the right ventricle thicker than the wall of the right atrium?
Correct
Explanation: C
• The right atrium only has to push blood a short distance into the right ventricle → low pressure task → thin wall.
• The right ventricle must pump blood through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs → needs higher pressure/force → thicker muscular wall.
Typical pressures: right atrium ~0–8 mmHg vs right ventricle systolic ~15–30 mmHg — reflecting the greater work the ventricle does.
Why the others are wrong
A. Different oxygen concentrations — Myocardial thickness depends on work/pressure load, not O2 levels.
B. Right atrium pumps blood around the body — False; the left ventricle does systemic pumping.
D. Right ventricle receives more blood than the right atrium — In steady state, flow volumes are equal through all chambers (no net gain/loss).Incorrect
Explanation: C
• The right atrium only has to push blood a short distance into the right ventricle → low pressure task → thin wall.
• The right ventricle must pump blood through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs → needs higher pressure/force → thicker muscular wall.
Typical pressures: right atrium ~0–8 mmHg vs right ventricle systolic ~15–30 mmHg — reflecting the greater work the ventricle does.
Why the others are wrong
A. Different oxygen concentrations — Myocardial thickness depends on work/pressure load, not O2 levels.
B. Right atrium pumps blood around the body — False; the left ventricle does systemic pumping.
D. Right ventricle receives more blood than the right atrium — In steady state, flow volumes are equal through all chambers (no net gain/loss). -
Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsIn a kidney dialysis machine, which substance will not be diffused from the patient’s blood into the dialysis fluid?
Correct
Explanation: A
A dialysis machine uses a semipermeable membrane that lets small solutes (e.g., urea, salts/ions) and water cross, but retains large molecules and cells. Plasma proteins (like albumin, ~66 kDa) are too large to pass through the membrane pores, so they do not diffuse into the dialysate.
Check on the other options
• Salts (B) and Urea (C): small, freely diffusible; move down their concentration gradients into dialysate.
• Water (D): crosses the membrane (mainly via ultrafiltration/osmosis) to remove excess fluid.
Hence, proteins stay in the blood; the rest can move out.Incorrect
Explanation: A
A dialysis machine uses a semipermeable membrane that lets small solutes (e.g., urea, salts/ions) and water cross, but retains large molecules and cells. Plasma proteins (like albumin, ~66 kDa) are too large to pass through the membrane pores, so they do not diffuse into the dialysate.
Check on the other options
• Salts (B) and Urea (C): small, freely diffusible; move down their concentration gradients into dialysate.
• Water (D): crosses the membrane (mainly via ultrafiltration/osmosis) to remove excess fluid.
Hence, proteins stay in the blood; the rest can move out. -
Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsWhat is the causative organism of syphilis?
Correct
Explanation: A
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. It’s a tightly coiled, motile bacterium detected by dark-field microscopy or serologic tests (e.g., VDRL/RPR with treponemal confirmatory tests).
Why the others are wrong
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae — causes atypical (“walking”) pneumonia.
C. Plasmodium — protozoa causing malaria.
D. Vibrio cholerae — bacterium causing cholera.Incorrect
Explanation: A
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. It’s a tightly coiled, motile bacterium detected by dark-field microscopy or serologic tests (e.g., VDRL/RPR with treponemal confirmatory tests).
Why the others are wrong
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae — causes atypical (“walking”) pneumonia.
C. Plasmodium — protozoa causing malaria.
D. Vibrio cholerae — bacterium causing cholera. -
Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWhich immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for providing long-term immunity after a vaccination?
Correct
Explanation: B
After vaccination, memory B cells undergo class switching and affinity maturation. On re-exposure (or sustained response), they predominantly produce high-affinity IgG, which has a long serum half-life (~21 days) and persists for years via ongoing memory responses—hence long-term immunity.
Why the others are not correct
IgA: Main mucosal antibody (tears, saliva, gut, breast milk); not the primary driver of systemic long-term post-vaccine protection.
IgM: First antibody made in primary response; short-lived, lower affinity (pentamer).
IgE: Involved in allergy and defense against helminths; not responsible for vaccine-induced long-term protectionIncorrect
Explanation: B
After vaccination, memory B cells undergo class switching and affinity maturation. On re-exposure (or sustained response), they predominantly produce high-affinity IgG, which has a long serum half-life (~21 days) and persists for years via ongoing memory responses—hence long-term immunity.
Why the others are not correct
IgA: Main mucosal antibody (tears, saliva, gut, breast milk); not the primary driver of systemic long-term post-vaccine protection.
IgM: First antibody made in primary response; short-lived, lower affinity (pentamer).
IgE: Involved in allergy and defense against helminths; not responsible for vaccine-induced long-term protection -
Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best explains why hemophilia is more common in males than in females:
Correct
Explanation: C
• Males are XY: if they inherit one mutant allele on the X (from their mother), they express the disease (no second X to mask it).
• Females are XX: they would need two mutant copies (one on each X) to be affected; with one mutant copy they’re typically carriers and usually asymptomatic.
• Classic hemophilias: A (factor VIII deficiency) and B (factor IX deficiency)—both X-linked recessive.
Why the others are wrong
A. Dominant autosomal — Would affect males and females similarly across generations.
B. Y-linked — Would pass father → son only; hemophilia does not follow this pattern.
D. Acquired later due to liver disease — Acquired coagulopathies exist but are not the reason hemophilia is more common in males; the sex difference is due to X-linked inheritance.
Quick inheritance note: A carrier mother has a 50% chance to pass the mutant X to each child → 50% of sons affected, 50% of daughters carriers.Incorrect
Explanation: C
• Males are XY: if they inherit one mutant allele on the X (from their mother), they express the disease (no second X to mask it).
• Females are XX: they would need two mutant copies (one on each X) to be affected; with one mutant copy they’re typically carriers and usually asymptomatic.
• Classic hemophilias: A (factor VIII deficiency) and B (factor IX deficiency)—both X-linked recessive.
Why the others are wrong
A. Dominant autosomal — Would affect males and females similarly across generations.
B. Y-linked — Would pass father → son only; hemophilia does not follow this pattern.
D. Acquired later due to liver disease — Acquired coagulopathies exist but are not the reason hemophilia is more common in males; the sex difference is due to X-linked inheritance.
Quick inheritance note: A carrier mother has a 50% chance to pass the mutant X to each child → 50% of sons affected, 50% of daughters carriers. -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsCompared with the few days before ovulation, which hormone is released in increased quantities three days after ovulation?
Correct
Explanation: D
Right after ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which starts secreting large amounts of progesterone. By about 3 days post-ovulation, progesterone is clearly rising toward its mid-luteal peak (≈day 21 in a 28-day cycle), preparing and maintaining the endometrium.
Why not the others
• FSH (A) and LH (B): both fall after the pre-ovulatory LH/FSH surge.
• Oestrogen (C): it drops right after ovulation (though there’s a smaller secondary rise later), so it’s not higher than in the few days before ovulation, when it was near its peak.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Right after ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which starts secreting large amounts of progesterone. By about 3 days post-ovulation, progesterone is clearly rising toward its mid-luteal peak (≈day 21 in a 28-day cycle), preparing and maintaining the endometrium.
Why not the others
• FSH (A) and LH (B): both fall after the pre-ovulatory LH/FSH surge.
• Oestrogen (C): it drops right after ovulation (though there’s a smaller secondary rise later), so it’s not higher than in the few days before ovulation, when it was near its peak. -
Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsEndometriosis will cause infertility in:
Correct
Explanation: B
Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus (e.g., ovaries, pelvic peritoneum). It’s a female-only condition and a well-known cause of infertility. It can impair fertility by:
• Pelvic adhesions/distorted anatomy → blocked or tethered fallopian tubes; impaired ovum pickup.
• Ovarian involvement (endometriomas) → reduced ovarian reserve/ovulation issues.
• Inflammation & cytokines in peritoneal fluid → toxic to gametes/embryos; impaired fertilization and implantation.
• Luteal/implantation defects due to altered endometrial receptivity.
It does not occur in males, so options A and C are incorrect; D is wrong because it can indeed cause infertility in affected females.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus (e.g., ovaries, pelvic peritoneum). It’s a female-only condition and a well-known cause of infertility. It can impair fertility by:
• Pelvic adhesions/distorted anatomy → blocked or tethered fallopian tubes; impaired ovum pickup.
• Ovarian involvement (endometriomas) → reduced ovarian reserve/ovulation issues.
• Inflammation & cytokines in peritoneal fluid → toxic to gametes/embryos; impaired fertilization and implantation.
• Luteal/implantation defects due to altered endometrial receptivity.
It does not occur in males, so options A and C are incorrect; D is wrong because it can indeed cause infertility in affected females. -
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsWhich part of the brain controls voluntary movements and balance:
Correct
Explanation: C
The cerebellum coordinates and fine-tunes voluntary movements and maintains posture and balance (equilibrium). Damage causes ataxia, intention tremor, and balance problems.
Why not the others
• Medulla oblongata (A): autonomic functions (breathing, heart rate), reflexes.
• Cerebrum (B): initiates/plans voluntary movement (motor cortex) but is not the primary center for balance/coordination.
• Hypothalamus (D): homeostasis (temperature, hunger), endocrine control—not movement/balance coordination.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The cerebellum coordinates and fine-tunes voluntary movements and maintains posture and balance (equilibrium). Damage causes ataxia, intention tremor, and balance problems.
Why not the others
• Medulla oblongata (A): autonomic functions (breathing, heart rate), reflexes.
• Cerebrum (B): initiates/plans voluntary movement (motor cortex) but is not the primary center for balance/coordination.
• Hypothalamus (D): homeostasis (temperature, hunger), endocrine control—not movement/balance coordination. -
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsThe dimension of work is like the dimensions of:
Correct
Explanation: B
Work has the same dimensions as energy:
Work = Force × distance ⇒ [MLT−2] [L]=[ML2T−2]
Torque is also force × perpendicular distance, so it has the same dimensions: [ML2T−2].
Why the others are wrong
• Impulse (A): Force × time → [MLT−1].
• Power (C): Work ÷ time → [ML2T−3].
• Angular momentum (D): r × p → [ML2T−1].
Note: Work (a scalar, joule = N·m) and torque (an axial vector, N·m) share dimensions but are not interchangeable quantities.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Work has the same dimensions as energy:
Work = Force × distance ⇒ [MLT−2] [L]=[ML2T−2]
Torque is also force × perpendicular distance, so it has the same dimensions: [ML2T−2].
Why the others are wrong
• Impulse (A): Force × time → [MLT−1].
• Power (C): Work ÷ time → [ML2T−3].
• Angular momentum (D): r × p → [ML2T−1].
Note: Work (a scalar, joule = N·m) and torque (an axial vector, N·m) share dimensions but are not interchangeable quantities. -
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsThe time rate of change of magnetic flux has the exact dimensions as that of:
Correct
Explanation: D
Magnetic flux Φ has unit weber (Wb), and 1 Wb = 1V.
So the time rate of change dΦ/dt has units Wb/s = V, i.e., potential difference. By Faraday’s law, the induced emf (a voltage) is E=-dΦ/dt.
Dimensional check (base units):
• [Φ] = Wb = V ⇒ [Φ] = ML2 T–2 I–1
• [dΦ/dt] = ML2T–3 I–1 =[Volt]
Why the others are wrong
• Current (A): [I]
• Resistance (Ω): [V/A]
• Magnetic induction (Tesla, T ): [Wb/m2]
Only potential difference matches dΦ/dt.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Magnetic flux Φ has unit weber (Wb), and 1 Wb = 1V.
So the time rate of change dΦ/dt has units Wb/s = V, i.e., potential difference. By Faraday’s law, the induced emf (a voltage) is E=-dΦ/dt.
Dimensional check (base units):
• [Φ] = Wb = V ⇒ [Φ] = ML2 T–2 I–1
• [dΦ/dt] = ML2T–3 I–1 =[Volt]
Why the others are wrong
• Current (A): [I]
• Resistance (Ω): [V/A]
• Magnetic induction (Tesla, T ): [Wb/m2]
Only potential difference matches dΦ/dt. -
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsThe value of Boltzmann constant is:
A. 6.022 × 1023 J·K–1
B. 1.8 × 10–23 J·K–1
C. 1.38 × 10–23 J·K–1
D. 8.314 J·K–1Correct
Explanation: C
The Boltzmann constant kB links temperature to energy (e.g., average kinetic energy = 3/2 kBT) and has the SI-defined exact value kB=1.380649 × 10–23 J, K–1 (option C matches to two/three sig figs).
Why others are wrong
A. 6.022 × 1023 is Avogadro’s number (unitless), not kB.
B. 1.8 × 10–23 has the right units but wrong value.
D. 8.314 J. K–1 is the gas constant R and should be 8.314 J. K–1; not kB.Incorrect
Explanation: C
The Boltzmann constant kB links temperature to energy (e.g., average kinetic energy = 3/2 kBT) and has the SI-defined exact value kB=1.380649 × 10–23 J, K–1 (option C matches to two/three sig figs).
Why others are wrong
A. 6.022 × 1023 is Avogadro’s number (unitless), not kB.
B. 1.8 × 10–23 has the right units but wrong value.
D. 8.314 J. K–1 is the gas constant R and should be 8.314 J. K–1; not kB. -
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsA mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is—
Correct
Explanation: B
Uniform acceleration means constant acceleration. For a body of fixed mass m, Newton’s second law gives a = Fnet/m. Thus:
• If Fnet is constant and nonzero, a is constant and nonzero → uniform acceleration.
• If Fnet = 0, then a = 0 → no acceleration (uniform velocity, not uniform acceleration).
• If Fnet increases uniformly with time, then a increases with time → non-uniform acceleration.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Uniform acceleration means constant acceleration. For a body of fixed mass m, Newton’s second law gives a = Fnet/m. Thus:
• If Fnet is constant and nonzero, a is constant and nonzero → uniform acceleration.
• If Fnet = 0, then a = 0 → no acceleration (uniform velocity, not uniform acceleration).
• If Fnet increases uniformly with time, then a increases with time → non-uniform acceleration. -
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsA stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsWhen two waves, having the same frequency and amplitude, traveling in the opposite direction meet one another, the resulting interference pattern gives rise to:
Correct
Explanation: C
Two waves of the same frequency and amplitude traveling in opposite directions superpose to form a standing wave. The displacement becomes
y(x ,t )=2A cos(kx) sin(ωt),
showing fixed nodes (where cos(kx) = 0, displacement always zero) and antinodes (max oscillation). Energy oscillates locally; there’s no net energy transport along the medium.
Why not the others
A (Transverse) and B (Longitudinal): Those describe the type of the medium’s oscillation; standing waves can be either transverse (on a string) or longitudinal (in air columns).
D (Electromagnetic waves): Not implied; the phenomenon applies to any wave type meeting the given conditions.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Two waves of the same frequency and amplitude traveling in opposite directions superpose to form a standing wave. The displacement becomes
y(x ,t )=2A cos(kx) sin(ωt),
showing fixed nodes (where cos(kx) = 0, displacement always zero) and antinodes (max oscillation). Energy oscillates locally; there’s no net energy transport along the medium.
Why not the others
A (Transverse) and B (Longitudinal): Those describe the type of the medium’s oscillation; standing waves can be either transverse (on a string) or longitudinal (in air columns).
D (Electromagnetic waves): Not implied; the phenomenon applies to any wave type meeting the given conditions. -
Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsThe distance between node and antinode is:
Correct
Explanation: C
In a standing wave, adjacent nodes are separated by λ/2. Antinodes lie midway between nodes. Therefore, the distance from a node to the nearest antinode is (λ/2)/2 = λ/4.Incorrect
Explanation: C
In a standing wave, adjacent nodes are separated by λ/2. Antinodes lie midway between nodes. Therefore, the distance from a node to the nearest antinode is (λ/2)/2 = λ/4. -
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsWhen the body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is __________________.
Correct
Explanation: B
On a horizontal surface with friction, the frictional force does negative work (opposes motion). For the body to move against friction, an applied force in the direction of motion must do positive work on the surroundings (energy goes into overcoming friction and becomes heat).
• If speed is constant, the network is zero, but the work done by the body (applied force) is still positive, equal in magnitude to the negative work of friction.
• If the body speeds up, the applied work exceeds the frictional loss (still positive).Incorrect
Explanation: B
On a horizontal surface with friction, the frictional force does negative work (opposes motion). For the body to move against friction, an applied force in the direction of motion must do positive work on the surroundings (energy goes into overcoming friction and becomes heat).
• If speed is constant, the network is zero, but the work done by the body (applied force) is still positive, equal in magnitude to the negative work of friction.
• If the body speeds up, the applied work exceeds the frictional loss (still positive). -
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following type of force do not work?
Correct
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsWhen sound waves move from one medium to another the quantity which remains the same is:
Correct
Explanation: B
When a wave passes from one medium to another, the source still determines the oscillation rate, so frequency stays the same. The speed changes to the value in the new medium, so the wavelength adjusts via v = fλ. Intensity usually changes due to reflection/absorption at the boundary.Incorrect
Explanation: B
When a wave passes from one medium to another, the source still determines the oscillation rate, so frequency stays the same. The speed changes to the value in the new medium, so the wavelength adjusts via v = fλ. Intensity usually changes due to reflection/absorption at the boundary. -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsWhat is correct for all transverse waves?
Correct
Explanation: B
Polarization is a defining property of transverse waves: their oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, so you can specify (or filter) the direction of vibration—that’s polarization.
Why the others are wrong
A. Not all transverse waves involve oscillating atoms (e.g., electromagnetic waves have oscillating fields, not atoms).
C. Not all transverse waves travel in a vacuum; only EM waves do—mechanical transverse waves (like on a string) require a medium.
D. Since A is false, “Both A & C” is false.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Polarization is a defining property of transverse waves: their oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, so you can specify (or filter) the direction of vibration—that’s polarization.
Why the others are wrong
A. Not all transverse waves involve oscillating atoms (e.g., electromagnetic waves have oscillating fields, not atoms).
C. Not all transverse waves travel in a vacuum; only EM waves do—mechanical transverse waves (like on a string) require a medium.
D. Since A is false, “Both A & C” is false. -
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsA 30 cm long string with one end clamped and the other free to move transversely is vibrating in its second harmonic. The wavelength of the constituents traveling waves is:
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsFor all irreversible processes, the entropy of the system:
Correct
Explanation: D
Irreversible (spontaneous) processes produce entropy. By the Clausius inequality, dS > δQrev/T for an irreversible change, so entropy increases. In an isolated system (δQ = 0), this gives ΔS > 0. (For reversible processes, ΔSuniv = 0.)
Eliminate others
• A. Decreases: violates the second law (for an isolated system).
• B. Remain constant: true only for reversible processes.
• C. Zero: again only for reversible processes (net change of the universe).Incorrect
Explanation: D
Irreversible (spontaneous) processes produce entropy. By the Clausius inequality, dS > δQrev/T for an irreversible change, so entropy increases. In an isolated system (δQ = 0), this gives ΔS > 0. (For reversible processes, ΔSuniv = 0.)
Eliminate others
• A. Decreases: violates the second law (for an isolated system).
• B. Remain constant: true only for reversible processes.
• C. Zero: again only for reversible processes (net change of the universe). -
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsThe temperature scale which is independent of the nature of the working substance is:
Correct
Explanation: D
The thermodynamic (Kelvin) scale is defined from fundamental laws (Carnot/second law and, in SI, the fixed value of kB), so it’s independent of the working substance used to measure temperature.
• Celsius/Centigrade (A/C) and Fahrenheit (B) are empirical scales tied to properties of particular substances (e.g., water), hence not universally substance-independent.Incorrect
Explanation: D
The thermodynamic (Kelvin) scale is defined from fundamental laws (Carnot/second law and, in SI, the fixed value of kB), so it’s independent of the working substance used to measure temperature.
• Celsius/Centigrade (A/C) and Fahrenheit (B) are empirical scales tied to properties of particular substances (e.g., water), hence not universally substance-independent. -
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsIf the temperature of the source of heat increases the efficiency of a Carnot engine ________________.
Correct
Explanation: A
Carnot efficiency depends only on the reservoir temperatures (in kelvin):
η = 1 − Tc/Th.
If the source (hot reservoir) temperature Th increases while the sink Tc stays the same, the ratio Tc/Th gets smaller, so η increases. (Conversely, raising Tc would lower efficiency.).Incorrect
Explanation: A
Carnot efficiency depends only on the reservoir temperatures (in kelvin):
η = 1 − Tc/Th.
If the source (hot reservoir) temperature Th increases while the sink Tc stays the same, the ratio Tc/Th gets smaller, so η increases. (Conversely, raising Tc would lower efficiency.). -
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsThe negative gradient of electric potential is also called—
Correct
Explanation: B
The electric field is the negative gradient of electric potential:
This points in the direction of greatest decrease of potential. Units match:
V/m = N/C.
• A/C are energies, not fields.
• D (electron volt) is a unit of energy, not a field.Incorrect
Explanation: B
The electric field is the negative gradient of electric potential:
This points in the direction of greatest decrease of potential. Units match:
V/m = N/C.
• A/C are energies, not fields.
• D (electron volt) is a unit of energy, not a field. -
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsTwo metallic conductors have the same value of resistivity. These conductors can be differentiated from the values of their:
Correct
Explanation: A
• If two conductors have the same resistivity ρ (at a given reference temperature), they also have the same conductivity σ = 1/ρ → D is not helpful.
• Resistance R = ρL/A and conductance G = 1/R depend on the dimensions L,A, not just the material → B and C can’t uniquely differentiate materials.
• The temperature coefficient of resistivity α is a material property describing how ρ changes with temperature; different metals can share the same ρ at one temperature but have different α. Hence AIncorrect
Explanation: A
• If two conductors have the same resistivity ρ (at a given reference temperature), they also have the same conductivity σ = 1/ρ → D is not helpful.
• Resistance R = ρL/A and conductance G = 1/R depend on the dimensions L,A, not just the material → B and C can’t uniquely differentiate materials.
• The temperature coefficient of resistivity α is a material property describing how ρ changes with temperature; different metals can share the same ρ at one temperature but have different α. Hence A -
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsIn transistor, the emitter base function is ________________.
Correct
Explanation: B
In a bipolar junction transistor (BJT) operating in its active region (the usual mode for amplification), the emitter–base junction is forward biased so carriers are injected from the emitter into the base. The collector–base junction is simultaneously reverse biased to sweep those carriers into the collector, enabling current amplification.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In a bipolar junction transistor (BJT) operating in its active region (the usual mode for amplification), the emitter–base junction is forward biased so carriers are injected from the emitter into the base. The collector–base junction is simultaneously reverse biased to sweep those carriers into the collector, enabling current amplification. -
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsThe resistivity ρ of copper in Ω·m is:
A. 1.52 × 10–8
B. 1.54 × 10–8
C. 5.00 × 10–8
D. None of theseCorrect
Explanation: D
Standard resistivity of copper at ∼20° C is about 1.68 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m (often rounded to 1.7 × 10–8).
• 1.52 × 10–8 and 1.54 × 10–8are closer to silver (∼1.59 × 10–8 Ω⋅ m).
• 5.00 × 10–8 is far too high for copper (more like poorer conductors).
Since none of the given numbers matches copper’s accepted value, D is correct.Incorrect
Explanation: D
Standard resistivity of copper at ∼20° C is about 1.68 × 10–8 Ω ⋅ m (often rounded to 1.7 × 10–8).
• 1.52 × 10–8 and 1.54 × 10–8are closer to silver (∼1.59 × 10–8 Ω⋅ m).
• 5.00 × 10–8 is far too high for copper (more like poorer conductors).
Since none of the given numbers matches copper’s accepted value, D is correct. -
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsThe magnetic force Fm acting on charge q when moves with a velocity v through a magnetic field B is given by:
Correct
Explanation: B
• The magnetic part of the Lorentz force is the cross product of velocity and magnetic field, scaled by charge: Fm = qv × B.
• Direction: given by the right-hand rule (perpendicular to both v and B ).
• Magnitude: |Fm | = qv B sinθ (zero if v ‖B ).
Why others are wrong
A. Writes q × v × Bn – a cross product with a scalar q is not defined.
C. Uses v(q × B) – again, q × B is meaningless.
D. qE + q(v × B) is the full Lorentz force (electric + magnetic); the question asked only for the magnetic force.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• The magnetic part of the Lorentz force is the cross product of velocity and magnetic field, scaled by charge: Fm = qv × B.
• Direction: given by the right-hand rule (perpendicular to both v and B ).
• Magnitude: |Fm | = qv B sinθ (zero if v ‖B ).
Why others are wrong
A. Writes q × v × Bn – a cross product with a scalar q is not defined.
C. Uses v(q × B) – again, q × B is meaningless.
D. qE + q(v × B) is the full Lorentz force (electric + magnetic); the question asked only for the magnetic force. -
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsOne atom of sodium is:
Correct
Explanation: D
• Avogadro’s constant NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 is the number of entities in 1 mole.
• Therefore one atom corresponds to 1/NA moles ( ≈ 1.66 × 10–24 mol ).Eliminate others
A. (23 g): that’s the molar mass of Na (mass of 1 mole), not one atom.
B. (NA moles): would be an astronomically huge amount of atoms.
C. (positively charged): a sodium atom is neutral; Na+ is the ion.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Avogadro’s constant NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 is the number of entities in 1 mole.
• Therefore one atom corresponds to 1/NA moles ( ≈ 1.66 × 10–24 mol ).Eliminate others
A. (23 g): that’s the molar mass of Na (mass of 1 mole), not one atom.
B. (NA moles): would be an astronomically huge amount of atoms.
C. (positively charged): a sodium atom is neutral; Na+ is the ion. -
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsOne gram atom of chlorine is equal to:
Correct
Explanation: D
• A gram atom of an element = its atomic mass in grams = 1 mole of its atoms.
• Chlorine’s atomic mass ≈ 35.5 g (average of its isotopes), so 1 gram atom of Cl = 35.5 g of chlorine atoms = 1 mole of Cl atoms → both A and B are true.
• 71 g (C) corresponds to 1 mole of chlorine molecules (Cl2) (a gram molecule), not a gram atom.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• A gram atom of an element = its atomic mass in grams = 1 mole of its atoms.
• Chlorine’s atomic mass ≈ 35.5 g (average of its isotopes), so 1 gram atom of Cl = 35.5 g of chlorine atoms = 1 mole of Cl atoms → both A and B are true.
• 71 g (C) corresponds to 1 mole of chlorine molecules (Cl2) (a gram molecule), not a gram atom. -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsTotal charge on an electron is approximately:
A. –1.6 × 10–20 C
B. –1.6 × 10–19 C
C. –3.2 × 10–19 C
D. –1.6×10–18 CCorrect
Explanation: B
The elementary charge ee is exactly 1.602 176 634 × 10−19 C by SI definition. An electron carries this charge with a negative sign, so −1.6 × 10−19C (to 2 – 3 sig figs).Incorrect
Explanation: B
The elementary charge ee is exactly 1.602 176 634 × 10−19 C by SI definition. An electron carries this charge with a negative sign, so −1.6 × 10−19C (to 2 – 3 sig figs). -
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsIf maximum value of principal quantum number for an atom is four then total number of electrons in an atom will be—
Correct
Explanation: C
Incorrect
Explanation: C

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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsVelocity of an electron will be maximum in the _______________.
Correct
Explanation: A
In the Bohr model for hydrogen-like atoms, electron speed scales as
vn ∝ 1/n
(precisely vn = Zαc/n). So, the lowest principal quantum number (n = 1) has the highest electron velocity. Even in multi-electron atoms, inner-shell (lower-
n) electrons move faster due to stronger effective nuclear attraction.Incorrect
Explanation: A
In the Bohr model for hydrogen-like atoms, electron speed scales as
vn ∝ 1/n
(precisely vn = Zαc/n). So, the lowest principal quantum number (n = 1) has the highest electron velocity. Even in multi-electron atoms, inner-shell (lower-
n) electrons move faster due to stronger effective nuclear attraction. -
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsA container with a porous wall is filled with one mole each of He, H2, N2 and CO2. Which one of these gases will take the least time to effuse out of the container?
A. He
B. H2
C. N2
D. O2Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsThe behavior of a gas is non-ideal at _______________.
Correct
Explanation: B
Incorrect
Explanation: B

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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following elements will have strongest Van der Waals force of attraction between its molecules _________________.
Correct
Explanation: C
For nonpolar molecules, van der Waals (London dispersion) forces strengthen with greater molar mass and polarizability (more electrons, larger electron cloud). Among the choices:
• H2 (2 g/mol) < N2 (28) < O2 (32) < Cl2 (≈71)
Thus Cl2 has the largest, most polarizable electron cloud and the strongest dispersion forces between its molecules.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For nonpolar molecules, van der Waals (London dispersion) forces strengthen with greater molar mass and polarizability (more electrons, larger electron cloud). Among the choices:
• H2 (2 g/mol) < N2 (28) < O2 (32) < Cl2 (≈71)
Thus Cl2 has the largest, most polarizable electron cloud and the strongest dispersion forces between its molecules. -
Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsEqual number of moles of three gases O2, Cl2, and H₂ are enclosed in a container at room temperature. If the container leaks accidentally then—
A. H2 will effuse out first
B. Cl2 will effuse out last
C. O2 will effuse out second
D. All will effuse out at the same time but with different ratesCorrect
Explanation: D
Incorrect
Explanation: D

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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsMethyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to _____________.
Correct
Explanation: C
Both methylamine (CH3NH2) and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) have X–H bonds (N–H and O–H, respectively) and lone pairs on electronegative atoms, so they can donate and accept hydrogen bonds. These relatively strong intermolecular attractions greatly raise their boiling points compared with similar-mass molecules that lack H-bonding.
• Methylamine: N–H···N hydrogen bonds between molecules.
• Hydrogen peroxide: O–H···O hydrogen-bond network.
(Dipole–dipole and dispersion forces are present too, but hydrogen bonding is the dominant reason for their condensed (liquid) behavior.).Incorrect
Explanation: C
Both methylamine (CH3NH2) and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) have X–H bonds (N–H and O–H, respectively) and lone pairs on electronegative atoms, so they can donate and accept hydrogen bonds. These relatively strong intermolecular attractions greatly raise their boiling points compared with similar-mass molecules that lack H-bonding.
• Methylamine: N–H···N hydrogen bonds between molecules.
• Hydrogen peroxide: O–H···O hydrogen-bond network.
(Dipole–dipole and dispersion forces are present too, but hydrogen bonding is the dominant reason for their condensed (liquid) behavior.). -
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are liquid crystals except _______________.
Correct
Explanation: D
• Liquid crystals are materials that show an intermediate (mesomorphic) phase with some order like solids but flow like liquids.
• Soap solutions form lyotropic liquid-crystal phases.
• DNA solutions can exhibit cholesteric/nematic liquid-crystal ordering.
• Cholesteryl formate (spelled “format” here) is a classic cholesteric liquid crystal.
• Engine oil is an ordinary isotropic liquid (a hydrocarbon mixture) and does not exhibit liquid-crystal phases.Incorrect
Explanation: D
• Liquid crystals are materials that show an intermediate (mesomorphic) phase with some order like solids but flow like liquids.
• Soap solutions form lyotropic liquid-crystal phases.
• DNA solutions can exhibit cholesteric/nematic liquid-crystal ordering.
• Cholesteryl formate (spelled “format” here) is a classic cholesteric liquid crystal.
• Engine oil is an ordinary isotropic liquid (a hydrocarbon mixture) and does not exhibit liquid-crystal phases. -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsCrystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal ions are __________________.
Correct
Explanation: D
In metallic crystals, lattice points are occupied by metal cations immersed in a “sea” of delocalized electrons (metallic bonding).
Why not the others
• Ionic crystals: lattice points are alternately occupied by both cations (often metals) and anions (non-metals), not metal ions alone.
• Covalent crystals: lattice points are atoms linked in a giant covalent network (e.g., diamond, Si).
• Molecular crystals: lattice points are neutral molecules held by intermolecular forces (e.g., ice, CO2(s), I2).Incorrect
Explanation: D
In metallic crystals, lattice points are occupied by metal cations immersed in a “sea” of delocalized electrons (metallic bonding).
Why not the others
• Ionic crystals: lattice points are alternately occupied by both cations (often metals) and anions (non-metals), not metal ions alone.
• Covalent crystals: lattice points are atoms linked in a giant covalent network (e.g., diamond, Si).
• Molecular crystals: lattice points are neutral molecules held by intermolecular forces (e.g., ice, CO2(s), I2). -
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are covalent network crystals except ________________.
A. SiO2
B. Graphite
C. Se
D. DiamondCorrect
Explanation: C
• SiO2 (Quartz): giant 3D covalent network of Si–O–Si bonds.
• Diamond: 3D network of sp3 C–C bonds.
• Graphite: 2D covalent network sheets of sp2 carbon (strong within layers; weak van der Waals between layers).
• Selenium (Se): exists as Se8 rings or helical chains; solids are held together between molecules/chains mainly by van der Waals interactions → not a 3D covalent network.Incorrect
Explanation: C
• SiO2 (Quartz): giant 3D covalent network of Si–O–Si bonds.
• Diamond: 3D network of sp3 C–C bonds.
• Graphite: 2D covalent network sheets of sp2 carbon (strong within layers; weak van der Waals between layers).
• Selenium (Se): exists as Se8 rings or helical chains; solids are held together between molecules/chains mainly by van der Waals interactions → not a 3D covalent network. -
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsX” is an imaginary plane which divides a crystal into two equal halves which are the exact mirror images of each other. The proper term for “X” is—
Correct
Explanation: B
A plane of symmetry (mirror plane) splits a crystal so that each point on one side is the mirror image of a point on the other.
Why the others are wrong
• Axis of rotation: line about which the crystal can be rotated to coincide with itself.
• Center of symmetry (inversion center): every point x, y, z has an equivalent at −x,−y,−z.
• Axis of inversion: not a standard term; inversion is about a center, not an axis.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A plane of symmetry (mirror plane) splits a crystal so that each point on one side is the mirror image of a point on the other.
Why the others are wrong
• Axis of rotation: line about which the crystal can be rotated to coincide with itself.
• Center of symmetry (inversion center): every point x, y, z has an equivalent at −x,−y,−z.
• Axis of inversion: not a standard term; inversion is about a center, not an axis. -
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsIf one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine in an empty container then with the passage of time rate of ______________.
Correct
Explanation: D
For H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI at constant T,
• Forward rate: rf = kf [H2 ][I2 ] – as time passes, [H2 ] and [I2 ] drop ⇒ rf decreases.
• Reverse rate: rr = kr [HI]2 – as HI forms, [HI] rises ⇒rr increases.
They become equal at equilibrium (dynamic equilibrium).
Why others are wrong
A: Forward rate does not increase; it falls as reactants are consumed.
B: Both rates are affected until equilibrium.
C: Reverse rate initially increases, not decreases.Incorrect
Explanation: D
For H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI at constant T,
• Forward rate: rf = kf [H2 ][I2 ] – as time passes, [H2 ] and [I2 ] drop ⇒ rf decreases.
• Reverse rate: rr = kr [HI]2 – as HI forms, [HI] rises ⇒rr increases.
They become equal at equilibrium (dynamic equilibrium).
Why others are wrong
A: Forward rate does not increase; it falls as reactants are consumed.
B: Both rates are affected until equilibrium.
C: Reverse rate initially increases, not decreases. -
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsBuffer is a solution which ______________.
Correct
Explanation: B
A buffer solution contains a weak acid–conjugate base pair (e.g., CH3COOH/CH3COO–) or a weak base–conjugate acid pair (e.g., NH3/NH4+). By Le Chatelier’s principle, it neutralizes small added amounts of H+ or OH–, so its pH changes only slightly—not perfectly constant.
Why the others are wrong
A. Has constant pH: No real solution has perfectly constant pH; buffers only minimize pH change.
C. Strong acid + strong base: This gives a neutral salt and no buffering (no weak/conjugate pair).
D. Salts of strong acids and strong bases: Such salts are typically neutral in water and do not buffer.Incorrect
Explanation: B
A buffer solution contains a weak acid–conjugate base pair (e.g., CH3COOH/CH3COO–) or a weak base–conjugate acid pair (e.g., NH3/NH4+). By Le Chatelier’s principle, it neutralizes small added amounts of H+ or OH–, so its pH changes only slightly—not perfectly constant.
Why the others are wrong
A. Has constant pH: No real solution has perfectly constant pH; buffers only minimize pH change.
C. Strong acid + strong base: This gives a neutral salt and no buffering (no weak/conjugate pair).
D. Salts of strong acids and strong bases: Such salts are typically neutral in water and do not buffer. -
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsEquilibrium constant expression in non-aqueous medium can be applied to ____________.
Correct
Explanation: D
“Non-aqueous medium” means a solvent other than water. Options A–C are aqueous (water-based) solutions, while kerosene is a non-aqueous organic solvent. Equilibrium constant expressions (in terms of activities or, in dilute cases, concentrations) are perfectly applicable in non-aqueous solvents like kerosene for reactions occurring in that medium.Incorrect
Explanation: D
“Non-aqueous medium” means a solvent other than water. Options A–C are aqueous (water-based) solutions, while kerosene is a non-aqueous organic solvent. Equilibrium constant expressions (in terms of activities or, in dilute cases, concentrations) are perfectly applicable in non-aqueous solvents like kerosene for reactions occurring in that medium. -
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsIf molar concentration of a reactant “A” is one, then rate of the reaction of “A” will be _____________.
Correct
Explanation: C
For a reaction whose rate depends on A as r = k[A]n, if [A] = 1 mol. pL−1 r = k ⋅ 1n. (This holds for any order n, including zero order.)
Note: The units of k depend on the reaction order, but numerically the rate equals k when [A] = 1.Incorrect
Explanation: C
For a reaction whose rate depends on A as r = k[A]n, if [A] = 1 mol. pL−1 r = k ⋅ 1n. (This holds for any order n, including zero order.)
Note: The units of k depend on the reaction order, but numerically the rate equals k when [A] = 1. -
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsIn many reactions reactants pass through different intermediates before producing the products. These reactions consist of elementary steps. The rate at which product is produced depends on the _______________.
Correct
Explanation: B
In a multi-step (mechanistic) reaction, the rate-determining step (RDS) is the slowest elementary step—the bottleneck. It limits the overall rate because subsequent fast steps can’t proceed faster than this slow step. Often, the observed rate law reflects the molecularity/concentrations involved in the RDS (with possible modifications if fast pre-equilibria are present).
Why the others are wrong
A. Fastest step: Never limits the overall rate.
C. “Intermediate step” (unspecified): Any step could form/use intermediates; only the slowest one controls the rate.
D. First step: It could be fast or slow; being first doesn’t guarantee it’s rate-determining.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In a multi-step (mechanistic) reaction, the rate-determining step (RDS) is the slowest elementary step—the bottleneck. It limits the overall rate because subsequent fast steps can’t proceed faster than this slow step. Often, the observed rate law reflects the molecularity/concentrations involved in the RDS (with possible modifications if fast pre-equilibria are present).
Why the others are wrong
A. Fastest step: Never limits the overall rate.
C. “Intermediate step” (unspecified): Any step could form/use intermediates; only the slowest one controls the rate.
D. First step: It could be fast or slow; being first doesn’t guarantee it’s rate-determining. -
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsThe reaction whose rate does not depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression is the _____________.
Correct
Explanation: B
In a zero-order reaction, the rate law is r = k[A]0 = k. The rate is independent of reactant concentration.
Examples: enzyme-catalyzed reactions at substrate saturation (Michaelis–Menten zero-order region), or certain surface/photochemical reactions where the surface or light intensity—not [A]—limits the rate.Incorrect
Explanation: B
In a zero-order reaction, the rate law is r = k[A]0 = k. The rate is independent of reactant concentration.
Examples: enzyme-catalyzed reactions at substrate saturation (Michaelis–Menten zero-order region), or certain surface/photochemical reactions where the surface or light intensity—not [A]—limits the rate. -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsHow much % of calcium is in calcium carbonate?
Correct
Explanation: C
Molar mass M(CaCO3) = 40.08(Ca) + 12.01(C) + 3 × 16.00(O) ≈ 100.09 g∖mol–1
Fraction of Ca = 40.08/100.09 ≈ 0.40 ⇒ ≈ 40% by mass.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Molar mass M(CaCO3) = 40.08(Ca) + 12.01(C) + 3 × 16.00(O) ≈ 100.09 g∖mol–1
Fraction of Ca = 40.08/100.09 ≈ 0.40 ⇒ ≈ 40% by mass. -
Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsElectronic configuration of K is _______________.
A. [Ar] 4s2
B. [Ar] 4s1
C. [Kr] 4s1
D. [He] 4s1Correct
Explanation: B
Potassium (Z = 19) fills up to the argon core ( [Ar], 18 electrons), then places the 19th electron in the 4s subshell: [Ar] 4s1.
Eliminate others
• A[Ar]4s2 → that’s calcium (Z = 20).
• C[Kr]4s1→ krypton core is too large ( 36e–).
• D [He] 4s1→ helium core is too small ( 2e–); skips the needed inner shells.Incorrect
Explanation: B
Potassium (Z = 19) fills up to the argon core ( [Ar], 18 electrons), then places the 19th electron in the 4s subshell: [Ar] 4s1.
Eliminate others
• A[Ar]4s2 → that’s calcium (Z = 20).
• C[Kr]4s1→ krypton core is too large ( 36e–).
• D [He] 4s1→ helium core is too small ( 2e–); skips the needed inner shells. -
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sample contains the most atoms?
Correct
Explanation: C
Number of atoms = (moles) × (atoms per molecule).
• H2O: 0.5 mol × 3 = 1.5 NA atoms
• CO2: 1.0 mol × 3 = 3 NA atoms
• CH4: 1.0 mol × 5 = 5 NA atoms ← most
• HCl: 2.0 mol × 2 = 4 NA atoms
So, methane sample has the greatest total atoms.Incorrect
Explanation: C
Number of atoms = (moles) × (atoms per molecule).
• H2O: 0.5 mol × 3 = 1.5 NA atoms
• CO2: 1.0 mol × 3 = 3 NA atoms
• CH4: 1.0 mol × 5 = 5 NA atoms ← most
• HCl: 2.0 mol × 2 = 4 NA atoms
So, methane sample has the greatest total atoms. -
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsA compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% of oxygen by mass. The relative molecular mass of the compound is between 55 and 65. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
A. CH2O
B. C2H4O
C. C2H4O2
D. C_H8O2Correct
Explanation: C
1. Assume 100 g sample → C = 40.0 g, H = 6.7 g, O = 53.3 g.
2. Convert to moles:
• C: 40.0/12 ≈ 3.3340.0/12 ≈ 3.33
• H: 6.7/1 ≈ 6.76.7/1 ≈ 6.7
• O: 53.3/16≈3.3353.3/16≈3.33
3. Divide by the smallest (≈3.33): C : H : O ≈ 1 : 2 : 1 → empirical formula = CH2O (empirical mass = 30).
4. Given Mr is between 55 and 65, the closest whole multiple of 30 is 2 × 30 = 60 → molecular formula = (CH2O)2 = C2H4O2.Incorrect
Explanation: C
1. Assume 100 g sample → C = 40.0 g, H = 6.7 g, O = 53.3 g.
2. Convert to moles:
• C: 40.0/12 ≈ 3.3340.0/12 ≈ 3.33
• H: 6.7/1 ≈ 6.76.7/1 ≈ 6.7
• O: 53.3/16≈3.3353.3/16≈3.33
3. Divide by the smallest (≈3.33): C : H : O ≈ 1 : 2 : 1 → empirical formula = CH2O (empirical mass = 30).
4. Given Mr is between 55 and 65, the closest whole multiple of 30 is 2 × 30 = 60 → molecular formula = (CH2O)2 = C2H4O2. -
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following orbitals have a dumbbell shape?
Correct
Explanation: B
• p orbitals (px, py, pz) have two lobes on opposite sides of the nucleus → the classic dumbbell shape.
• s: spherical.
• d: mostly four-lobed “cloverleaf” (except dz22 which is dumbbell + torus).
• f: more complex, multi-lobed shapes.Incorrect
Explanation: B
• p orbitals (px, py, pz) have two lobes on opposite sides of the nucleus → the classic dumbbell shape.
• s: spherical.
• d: mostly four-lobed “cloverleaf” (except dz22 which is dumbbell + torus).
• f: more complex, multi-lobed shapes.